9 Social Science

History

1: The French Revolution

Exercise 

Que 1: Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.

Ans: Revolution started in France under the following circumstances:

1. In 1774, Louis 16th became the Emperor of France. At that time he found the treasury empty.
2. The prolonged wars added to the debt of more than ten billion livres on France, while it was already burdened with two billion livres.
3. The French government was forced to raise taxes to meet its regular expenses, such as the maintenance of the army, the court, government offices or universities.
4. In the 18th century, French society was divided into three estates, and only the people of the third estate (the common people) paid taxes. The people of the first two estates, the nobility and the clergy, were exempt from taxes.
5. In this way, the entire burden of the financial functioning of the state was borne by the public through taxes. The public was troubled by inflation. Food items had started touching the sky.
6. The emerging middle class of the Third Estate opposed the policies of the emperor.
7. The agitated public started the revolution by storming the Bastille.

Que 2: Which groups of French society benefited from the revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections of society would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution?

Ans: At the time of the Revolution, the French society was divided into three estates. The Third Estate got the benefit of the revolution. The elites were forced to relinquish power. The nobles and clergy would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution. They were forced to give up the privilege.

Que 3: Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world during the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.

Ans: The French Revolution left the following legacies for the peoples of the world during the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.

1. The French Revolution was the first expression of nationalism. This led to the rise of the feeling of nationalism all over the world.
2. With the revolution of France, movements against monarchy, dictatorship and autocratic rulers started in the world.
3. Social and political changes took place in the countries of the world.
4. The feelings of freedom and equality awakened in the people.

Que 4: Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.

Ans: List of democratic rights that have their origins in the French Revolution:

1. Right to equality
2. Right to choose the government.
3. right to freedom of expression
4. right against exploitation
5. right to movement
6. right to property and security

Que 5: Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.

Ans: I agree with the argument that there were various contradictions in the message of universal rights.

• The Declaration of Civil Rights stated ‘All citizens are born free, live free and have equal rights’. While the reality was that women and non-tax payers did not have the right to vote.
• In the Declaration of Civil Rights, it was said that ‘freedom means the power to do such work which is not harmful to others.’ While France participated in many wars.

 Hence, it is clear that the idealism in the message of universal rights was limited to words and the sense of contradiction was inherent in the constitution.

Que 6: How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?

Ans: The Directory rule in France created political instability. French commander Napoleon Bonaparte took advantage of this and declared himself emperor. Napoleon Bonaparte was born in 1769 AD. He was very talented. He joined the army after getting education in the military school of Paris. He became the commander of France on the strength of his bravery and military ability. He won many wars. After that he became the first of the Directory and in a short time he became the Emperor of France. He established peace system in France with his ability and skill. He implemented the Civil Code in 1804.

2: Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution 

Exercise

Que 1: What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905? 

Ans: The social, economic and political conditions of Russia before 1905 were as follows:-

(a) Social conditions:

1. 85% of Russia’s population depended on agriculture.
2. Many workers had settled in the cities.
3. The laborers used to work for 10 to 12 hours.
4. Women were paid less than men.

(b) Economic conditions :-

1. There were very few industries.
2. St. Petersburg and Moscow were major industrial areas.
3. Rail network was being expanded.
4. Within a few years, coal production doubled and steel production quadrupled.

(c) Political situation:-

1. Czar Nicholas on Russia was ruled by
2. In addition to Moscow, the Russian Empire included present-day Finland, Latvia, Lithuania, Estonia, and parts of Poland, Ukraine, and Belarus.
3. The empire extended to the Pacific Ocean and included present-day Central Asian states as well as Georgia, Armenia and Azerbaijan.
4. In Russia, there was a majority of those who believed in Orthodox Christianity.

Que 2: In what ways the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe before 1917?

Ans: 

1. In Russia, 85% of the population depended on agriculture, whereas in the rest of Europe, 50% of the population depended on agriculture.
2. Russian farmers used to hand over their land to the commune from time to time. And later the commune used to distribute the land to the farmers according to their need. This was not the case in the rest of Europe.
3. The condition of workers in Russia was worse than in the rest of Europe. They got less salary. Had to work for 10 to 15 hours.
4. Unlike the rest of Europe, workers in Russia could not form unions.
5. They had neither political rights nor any hope of reform until the beginning of the Russian Revolution of 1917.

Que 3: Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917?

Ans: The Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917 due to the following ways:-

1. In the winter of 1917, the condition of the capital Petrograd was very bad.
2. The workers of more than 50 factories declared a strike.
3. When the laborers surrounded the residential areas and government buildings, the government imposed curfew.
4. On Sunday, 25 February, the government dissolved the Duma.
5. The military commanders advised the Czar to abdicate and on 2 March the Czar abdicated.

Que 4: Make two lists: one with the main events and the effects of the February Revolution and the other with the main events and effects of the October Revolution. Write a paragraph on who was involved in each, who were the leaders and what was the impact of each on Soviet history.

Ans: (a) Main events of the February revolution: –

1. In the winter of 1917, a workers’ strike was declared in Petrograd.
2. Women actively participated in this movement.
3. Deployment of mounted soldiers and police to control the agitators on 24-25 February.
4. On 25 February the government dismissed the Duma.
5. On 27 February, protesters gathered and vandalized police headquarters.
6. In the evening of the same day, the soldiers and workers held a Soviet meeting.
7. The Tsar abdicated on 2 March.

Effect :-

1. Czar’s rule came to an end.
2. The ban on holding public meetings and forming organizations was removed.
3. Soviets were made everywhere for elections.
4. All the land was given to the farmers.
5. Banks were nationalised.

(b) Main events of October:-

1. The conflict between the Provisional Government and the Bolsheviks began to escalate.
2. Lenin mobilized Boleslaves from the army and factories.
3. The rebellion started on 24 October.
4. By evening, the entire city came under the control of the revolutionaries.
5. All the ministers surrendered.
6. By December the Bolsheviks were in control of the Moscow Petrograd area.

Effect:-

1. Industries and banks were nationalised.
2. Land was declared social property.
3. Banned the old titles of elite class.
4. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.
5. The Bolshevik Party remained the only party to participate in the elections to the All-Russian Congress of Soviets. Now Russia has become a country with one party political system.

Que 5: What were the main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution? 

Ans: The following major changes were made by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution:

1. Nationalized industries and banks.
2. Land was declared social property.
3. Peasants were allowed to occupy the lands of feudal lords.
4. Banned the old titles of elite class.
5. Army uniforms were changed and Soviet caps were given.
6. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.
7. Now Russia had become a country with a one-party political system.

Que 6:Write a few lines to show what you know about:

• (i) Kulaks
• (ii) The Duma
• (iii) Women workers between 1900 and 1930.
• (iv) The Liberals.
• (v) Stalin’s collectivization programme.

Ans: (i) Kulaks:– The prosperous farmers of Russia were called Kulaks.

(ii) The Duma: – The Duma was the elected parliament of Russia, which was elected at the time of 1905 revolution.

(iii) Women workers between 1900 and 1930:- In 1914, Women workers in the factory were 31 percent. They were paid much less than the men. It was one-half to three-fourths that of men. In February 1917, women led strikes in many factories. Her contribution is celebrated as International Women’s Day.

(iv) Liberals :- Liberals want a nation in which all religions get equal respect and place. The liberal groups were also opposed to the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers. They were in favor of protecting the rights of the individual before the government. They said that the government should not be given the right to violate or take away someone’s rights. This group was in favor of an elected government based on representation, free from the influence of rulers and officials, and governed according to laws established by a well-trained judiciary.

(v) Stalin’s collectivisation programme: By 1927-28 the cities of Russia were facing acute problems of food supply. Stalin began a collectivization program to take control of the situation and to make up for the shortage. From 1929 the party ordered all farmers to work on collective farms (kolkhoz). Most of the land and equipment were transferred to the ownership of collective farms. All farmers worked on collective farms and the profits of the kolkhoz were divided among all the farmers.

3: Nazism and the Rise of Hitler 

Exercise

Que 1: Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.

Ans: The Weimar Republic had the following problems.

1. After the defeat in World War I, the Allies imposed a harsh and humiliating treaty on Germany.
2. In this treaty, a fine of six billion pounds was imposed on Germany and a lot of territory and iron and coal mines had to be handed over to France, Denmark and Belgium.
3. The Weimar Republic was held responsible for this humiliation at Versailles.
4. Conservatives mocked the Weimar Republic as the culprit of November.
5. After the First World War, Germany’s gold reserves were almost exhausted.
6. The economic situation had reached a very bad state.
7. Inflation had increased so much that to buy bread, they had to carry notes in bullock carts.

Que 2: Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany in 1930.

Ans: The following were the reasons for the popularity of Nazism in Germany after 1930-

1. During the Great Depression, Nazism had taken the form of a mass movement.
2. After 1929, banks were bankrupt, businesses were shutting down, workers were becoming unemployed and the middle class was facing the fear of helplessness and starvation.
3. Nazi propaganda made people see hope for a better future.
4. Hitler’s fiery speeches used to shake people. In his speeches, he assured to restore the lost prestige of the German society.
5. His promise was that he would provide employment to the unemployed and a secure future to the youth.
6. He assured that he would free the country from foreign influence and would give a befitting reply to all foreign ‘conspiracies’.

Que 3: What are the peculiarities of Nazi thinking?

Ans: The main aspects of Nazi thinking were the following:

1. All societies did not have equal rights in Nazi ideology. They were considered superior or inferior on racial grounds.
2. They considered the blue-eyed Nordic German Aryans as the superior race and considered the Jews as the lowest race and the staunchest enemies of the Aryans.
3. The idea of the Nazis was that the races that are the most powerful will survive, the weaker races will end.
4. They have to maintain their purity, gain strength and dominate the world.

Que 4: Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating a hatred for the Jews. 

Ans: The propaganda of the Nazis was effective in creating hatred against the Jews because of the following reasons:

1. The Nazis used films, radio, photographs, catchy slogans, posters and leaflets to spread hatred against the Jews.
2. In propaganda films, the emphasis was on spreading hatred towards the Jews. ‘The Eternal Jew’ was one such infamous film.
3. Jews were presented in particular images in propaganda.
4. He was shown wearing a kaftan with a beard.
5. They were addressed with words like earthworm, rat and worm.

Que 5:Explain what role women had in Nazi society. Return to Chapter 1 on the French Revolution. Write a paragraph comparing and contrasting the role of women in the two periods.

Ans: In Nazi society, women were not considered equal to men. Girls were told that their duty was to be a good mother and to give birth to children with pure Aryan blood and to bring them up. They were entrusted with maintaining the purity of the race, staying away from Jews, and inculcating Nazi values in their children. Women who gave birth to unwanted children were punished and mothers who gave birth to desired children were rewarded.

The difference between the role of women in the French Revolution and the Nazi regime-

       Women played an important role in the French Revolution. To protect their interests, they started political clubs and brought out newspapers. They demanded voting rights, election to assembly and political posts. While the role of women in the Nazi regime was to give birth to purebred children, nurture them and teach them Nazi values.

Que 6: In what ways did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people?

Ans: The Nazis used the following methods to gain complete control over the masses:

1. The Nazis made clever use of the media to garner public support. Due to his vigorous propaganda, Hitler had become the messiah of the people.
2. In 1933, he took over the post of Chancellor of Germany. A few days after taking office, he suspended rights like freedom of expression and press through the Agni Ordinance.
3. The Nazis banned all other parties and trade unions.
4. He established his complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.
5. Special controlling and security squads were formed to control the whole society according to the Nazis.

4: Forest Society and Colonialism 

Exercise

Que 1: Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the 

following groups of people:

•  Shifting cultivators

Ans:The changes in forest management affected the jhum cultivators in the following ways:-

1. It was difficult for the government to keep track of the rent on jhum cultivation.
2. So the government decided to ban nomadic farming.
3. Due to this many communities were forcibly displaced from the forests.
4. Some had to change their profession.

•  Nomadic and pastoralist communities

Ans: The changes in forest management affected the nomadic and pastoral communities in the following ways:-

1. The Forest Act increased the hardships of nomadic and pastoral communities across the country.
2. After this law, everyday activities such as cutting wood for the house, grazing animals, collecting roots and fruits, etc. became illegal.
3. Now they have no choice but to steal wood from the forests.
4. In the event of being caught, the forest guards used to take bribe from them.
5. Women who collect firewood were especially troubled.

•  Firms trading in timber/forest produce

Ans: Forest management affected the companies dealing in timber and forest products in the following ways:-

1. After the coming of this act, the forest trade went completely under government control.
2. The British handed over the monopoly of forest-products trade to European companies.
3. The business of companies dealing in wood and forest products started increasing.

•  Plantation owners

Ans: The changes in forest management affected the planters in the following ways:-

1. These tea and coffee plantations were built to meet the growing demand for tea, coffee and rubber in Europe.
2. For these also a huge part of the natural forests was cleared.
3. The colonial government took over the forests and sold vast tracts of them to European planters at very cheap rates.
4. The forests were cleared by fencing these areas and cultivation of tea and coffee started.

•  Kings/British officials engaged in shikar

Ans: The changes in forest management affected the hunting kings and British officers in the following ways: –

1. The new law deprived people of the right to hunt.
2. Now hunting has become a sport.
3. Trophies were awarded for hunting.

Que 2: What are the similarities between colonial management of the forests in Bastar and in Java?

Ans: The colonial forest management of Bastar and Java has the following similarities.

1. Like Bastar, the Dutch introduced forest management in Java.
2. In both places, the colonial government imposed restrictions on villagers going into the forest.
3. In both Bastar and Java, felling of trees and grazing cattle were punished.
4. Like Bastar in India, trees were cut indiscriminately in Java to make ships.

Que 3: Between 1880 and 1920, forest cover in the Indian subcontinent declined by 9.7 

million hectares, from 108.6 million hectares to 98.9 million hectares. Discuss 

the role of the following factors in this decline:

•  Railways
•  Shipbuilding
•  Agricultural expansion
•  Commercial farming
•  Tea/Coffee plantations
•  Adivasis and other peasant users

Ans:

Railways: The role of railways in the decline of the forested area of the subcontinent was as follows:-

1. There was a huge need of wood for the railway tracks.
2. For this, a large number of trees were cut. In the Madras Presidency alone, 35,000 trees were cut annually for sleepers.
3. The government gave private contracts to supply the required quantity.
4. These contractors started cutting trees without thinking.
5. The forests around the railway lines began to disappear rapidly.

Shipbuilding: Shipbuilding had the following role in reducing the forested area:-

1. The loss of oak forests in England by the early nineteenth century made it difficult to supply timber for the Royal Navy.
2. The English could not build ships without a regular supply of strong and durable wood.
3. It was impossible to maintain royal power without ships.
4. In the 1820s, expeditions were sent to discover the forest wealth of India.
5. Within a decade, trees were being felled on a large scale and huge quantities of wood were exported from India.

Agricultural Expansion: Agricultural expansion had a major role in the decline in forest cover. As the population increased and the demand for food increased, so did the expansion of agricultural land. For this, the forests were rapidly cleared.

Commercial farming: The role of commercial farming in the decline in forest cover was as follows:-

1. The cultivation of commercial crops was encouraged by the British government.
2. He encouraged farmers to grow jute, sugarcane and cotton.
3. For this the need of agricultural land was felt.
4. Due to this also trees were cut indiscriminately.

Tea-Coffee plantations:

1. The demand for tea and coffee started increasing in Europe.
2. To meet this demand, new tea and coffee plantations were built.
3. For this also a large part of the natural forests was cleared.

Adivasis and other peasant users:

1. Tribals and farmers used to do Jhum cultivation.
2. For this, a lot of forest land was made cultivable.

Que 4: Why are forests affected by wars?

Ans: The forests were affected by the wars in the following ways:

1. During the First and Second World War, trees were cut indiscriminately to meet the war requirement in India.
2. In Java, the Dutch adopted the policy of burn and run and burnt the logs.
3. Later, Japan cut down many trees for logs.
4. Many people took advantage of this opportunity to clear the forests for agriculture.

5: Pastoralist in the Modern World 

Exercise

Que 1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another.

What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous

movement?

Ans: Nomadic communities have to move frequently from one place to another because of the following reasons.

1. They keep roaming from here to there in the jugaad of livelihood.
2. They used to change their place according to summer and winter.
3. These people used to roam from place to place even for the food of their cattle.
4. The nomadic communities of the south used to change their places according to the rainy and dry seasons.

The environment was greatly benefited by their control movement, the soil used to become fertile where they used to graze their cattle.

Que 2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following

laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of

pastoralists:

Ø Waste Land rules

Ø Forest Acts

Ø Criminal Tribes Act

Ø Grazing Tax

Ans:

(1).Waste Land Rules: – The British considered fallow land as ‘useless’. It was necessary to make it fit for cultivation. That is why he made rules for waste land development. Through this regulation, the government started taking possession of non-agricultural land and handing it over to certain people. Many concessions were given to these people and they were strongly promoted to make this land fit for cultivation and cultivate it. Some such people were made the head of the village. Most of the land thus taken over was pasture land, regularly used by herders. In this way, the spread of agriculture started shrinking the pastures and problems started arising for the pastoralists.

(2) Forest Act:- Under the guise of the Forest Act, the government declared many such forests as ‘reserved forests’ where valuable wood like deodar or sal was produced. Shepherds were banned from entering these forests. In the opinion of the government, herds of herdsmen crush the small plants and eat the shoots. Due to which the growth of new trees stops.The Forest Acts changed the life of the pastoralists. Now they were stopped from going to those forests.

(3) Criminal Tribes Act: – In 1871, the British passed the Criminal Tribes Act. Under this law, many communities of artisans, traders and shepherds were placed in the list of criminal communities. He was declared a natural and born criminal. As soon as this law came into force, all such communities were ordered to settle in certain notified villages. Their movement without permit was banned. The village police kept an eye on them all the time.

(4) Grazing Tax: – The British had implemented grazing tax from the middle of the nineteenth century. The rate of tax per cattle went on increasing rapidly and the system of tax collection became stronger day by day. Between the decades of 1850 and 1880, the work of tax collection was entrusted to the contractors by bidding. By the 1880s, the government, through its agents, started collecting taxes directly from the herdsmen.

Que 3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing

lands.

Ans: The grazing land was taken away from the Maasai community for the following reasons:

1. Many pastures were snatched away by the imperialist powers of Europe to establish their colonies.
2. In later years the best pastures were taken over for white settlement.
3. The government took away pastures to increase the area under cultivation.
4. Masai pastures were snatched away to make hunting grounds.

Que 4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced

changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa.

Write about any two examples of changes which were similar

for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders.

Ans: The modern world brought about many changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. The two main ones are as follows:-

1. The grazing lands of Indian and East African pastoral communities were taken away.
2. Restrictions were imposed on them on coming and going in the forests, which greatly affected their lives.

Geography 

1: India- Size and Location 

Exercise

Que 1: Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

(a) Rajasthan            (b) Orissa

(c) Chhattisgarh.      (d) Tripura

Ans: (b) Orissa

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is

(a) 97∘25′E                  (b) 68∘7′E

(c) 77∘6′E                    (d) 82∘32′E

Ans: (a) 97∘25′E

(iii) Uttaranchal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with

(a) China                     (b) Bhutan

(c) Nepal                     (d) Myanmar

Ans: (c) Nepal

(iv) If you intend to visit Kavarati during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territories of India you will be going to

(a) Pondicherry                         (b) Lakshadweep

(c) Andaman and Nicobar.       (d) Diu and Daman

Ans: (b) Lakshadweep

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.

(a) Bhutan                        (b) Tajikistan

(c) Bangladesh                (d) Nepal

Ans: (b) Tajikistan

Ques 2: Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.

(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India.

(iii) Which island group of India lies to its south-east?

(iv) Which island countries are our southern neighbours?

Ans: 

(i) Lakshadweep

(ii) Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil and Australia.

(iii) Andaman and Nicobar island group.

(iv) Maldives, Sri Lanka.

Que 3: The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?

Ans:The eastern part of Arunachal Pradesh is situated at 97°25′ East longitude while the western part of Gujarat is situated at 68°7′ East longitude. That’s why sunrise in Arunachal Pradesh is 2 hours earlier than in Gujarat. While the clocks in both these states show the same time because the time of the whole of India is measured from the intermediate line 82°30′ East longitude, which is called the standard meridian of India.

Que 4: The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?

Ans: India’s central position in the Indian Ocean has benefited it from having close links with Europe and African countries in the west as well as Asian countries in the east. No country in the Indian Ocean has coastal boundaries like India. Due to this important position of India, this ocean has been named Indian Ocean. 

2: Physical Features of India 

Exercise

Que 1: Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as

(a) Coast                           (b) Peninsula

(c) Island                          (d) None of the above

Ans: (b) Peninsula

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are 

collectively called as

(a) Himachal                      (b) Purvanchal

(c) Uttarakhand                 (d) None of the above

Ans: (b) Purvanchal

(iii) The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as

(a) Coromandel                   (b) Kannad

(c) Konkan                           (d) Northern Circar

Ans: (b) Kannad

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

(a) Anamudi                      (b) Mahendragiri

(c) Kanchenjunga            (d) Khasi

Ans: (b) Mahendragiri

Que 2: Answer the following questions briefly:

(i) What is bhabar?

Ans: The rivers, after descending from the mountains, deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar.

(ii) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.

Ans: The three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south are:

1. Inner Himalayas.
2. Himachal or the lesser Himalaya.
3. Shiwaliks

(iii) Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges?

Ans: Malwa plateau 

(iv) Name the island group of India having coral origin.

Ans: Lakshadweep. 

Que 3(i): Distinguish between Bhangar and Khadar

Ans

Bhangar	Khadar
(i) It is made of older alluvium.(ii) The soil of this region consists of calcareous deposits called kankar.(iii) This region is higher than the Khadar plains.(iv) It is less fertile.(v) Most of the extensive farming can be done here.	(i) It is made of newer and younger deposits.(ii) New particles of soil are present in this region. (iii) This region is relatively low.(iv) This region is very fertile.(v) It is ideal for intensive agriculture.

Que 3(ii): Distinguish between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.

Ans:

Western Ghats	Eastern Ghats
1. The Western Ghats are situated on the western edges of the Deccan Plateau.2. It is parallel to the western coasts of India along the Arabian Sea.3. It is continuous, can be crossed through the passes only.4. The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats. Average elevation is 900-1600 meters.5. The highest peaks include the Anamudi, the Doda Belta.	1. The Eastern Ghats are situated on the eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau.2. It is parallel to the eastern coasts of India along the Bay of Bengal.3. It is discontinuous, irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.4. Average elevation is 600 meters. 5. The highest peaks include the Mahendragiri, the Javadi Hills.

Que 4:  Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan 

region with that of the Peninsular plateau.

Ans: The major physiographic divisions of India are the following:

(1) The Himalayan Mountains

(2) The Northern Plains

(3) The Peninsular Plateau

(4) The Indian Desert

(5) The Coastal Plains

(6) The Islands

Contrasts between the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.

Himalayan Region	Peninsular Plateau
1. The Himalayas are young fold mountains of comparatively recent origin.2. The Himalayan region is a semicircular elevated land.3. The main rivers flowing here are Ganga, Sutlej, Yamuna, Brahmaputra, Kosi. 4. The Himalayas are formed of the sedimentary rocks.5. They are formed at the edge of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.	1. They are a part of the oldest structures of the Indian subcontinent.2. The Peninsular Plateau is a table-shaped landmass.3. The major rivers flowing in this region are Narmada, Tapti, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri and Mahanadi.4. The Central Highlands are formed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.5. They are formed at the edge of the Deccan Plateau.

Que 5: Give an account of the Northern Plains of India.

Ans: 

(i) The northern plains are made up of three major river systems – the Indus river system, the Ganga river system, the Brahmaputra river system.

(ii) This plain is made of alluvial soil.

(iii) This plain is about 2400 km. Long and 240 to 320 km. are wide

(iv) It is a densely populated geographical area.

(v) It is a highly agriculturally productive region due to fertile land, availability of sufficient water and favorable climate.

Que 6. Write short notes on the following.

(i) The Indian Desert

(ii) The Central Highlands

(iii) The Island groups of India

Ans:

(i) The Indian Desert – 

1. The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. 
2. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes. 
3. This region receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year. 
4. It has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. 
5. Streams appear during the rainy season. 
6. Soon after they disappear into the sand as they do not have enough water to reach the sea. 
7. Luni is the only large river in this region.

(ii) The Central Highlands:- It is situated to the north of Narmada River. It is spread between Vindhyachal, Satpura and Aravalli. The rivers flowing in this region are Chambal, Sindh, Betwa, and Ken rivers.

(iii) Islands of India:- The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in the eastern sea of India and the Lakshadweep group in the western sea.

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: These islands are spread from north to south in the Bay of Bengal. They are large in size, abundant in number and scattered. Andaman in the north and Nicobar in the south. Its headquarter is at Port Blair.
• Lakshadweep Islands :- These islands are situated on the Malabar Coast of Kerala. This group of islands is made up of small atolls. In 1973 it was named Lakshadweep. It is 32 sq. kms. m. spread over the area. Kavaratti Island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.

3: Drainage 

Exercise

Que 1: Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) In which of the following states is the Wular lake located?

(a) Rajasthan.              (b) Punjab

(c) Uttar Pradesh.       (d) Jammu and Kashmir

Ans: (d) Jammu and Kashmir

(ii) The river Narmada has its source at

(a) Satpura.                  (b) Amarkantak

(c) Brahmagiri.            (d) Slopes of the Western Ghats

Ans: (b) Amarkantak

(iii) Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?

(a) Sambhar.                 (b) Wular

(c) Dal.                          (d) Gobind Sagar

Ans: (a) Sambhar

(iv) Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?

(a) Narmada.                (b) Godavari

(c) Krishna.                 (d) Mahanadi

Ans: (b) Godavari

(v) Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a rift valley?

(a) Mahanadi.               (b) Krishna

(c) Tungabhadra.         (d) Tapi

Ans: (d) Tapi

Que 2: Answer the following questions briefly,

(i) What is meant by a water divide? Give an example.

Ans: Any elevated area such as a mountain or high ground separating two neighboring drainage basins from each other is called a water divide. Example- Western Ghats.

(ii) Which is the largest river basin in India?

Ans: The Ganga basin is the largest river basin in India.

(iii) Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin?

Ans: The Indus River originates from Tibet near Mansarovar Lake. The Gangotri Glacier is the origin of the river Ganga.

(iv) Name the two head-streams of the Ganga. Where do they meet to form Ganga?

Ans: The two head-streams of the Ganges are Bhagirathi and Alaknanda. They meet each other at Devprayag in Uttarakhand to form the river Ganga.

(v) Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course?

Ans: Tibet is a cold and dry region. Therefore, in spite of being a long stream, the amount of water and silt (sand soil) in this river is very less here.

(vi) Which two peninsular rivers flow through trough?

Ans: Narmada and Tapi rivers flow through the trough. They form estuaries before entering the sea.

(vii) State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.

Ans: Rivers and lakes are very important economically: –

1. Rivers and lakes are the main sources of water.
2. These promote tourism.
3. Agriculture is irrigated by their water.
4. These are the best means of boat operation and water transport.
5. Hydroelectric projects have been established.

Que 3:Below are given names of a few lakes of India. Group those under two categories – natural and created by human beings.

(a) Wular                           (b) Dal                            (c) Nainital 

(d) Bhimtal                       (e) Govind Sagar.          (f) Loktak 

(g) Barapani                     (h) Chilika                      (i) Sambhar 

(j) Rana Pratap Sagar     (k) Nizam Sagar.            (l) Pulicat 

(m) Nagarjuna Sagar      (n) Hirakund.

Ans:

Natural Lakes:- Wular, Dal, Nainital, Bhimtal, Loktak, Barapani, Chilka, Sambhar, Pulicat

Man-made Lakes:- Gobind Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Nizam Sagar, Nagarjuna Sagar, Hirakud

Que 4: Discuss the significant difference between the Himalayan and the Peninsular Rivers.

Ans: 

The Himalayan Rivers	The Peninsular Rivers
(i) Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial.(ii) These rivers flow due to the melting of snow from the mountains.(iii) The length of these rivers is more.(iv) They form fully developed deltas.	(i) Most of the peninsular rivers are seasonal.(ii) Their flow depends on the year. (iii) The length of these rivers is less.(iv) These rivers form deltas near their mouths.

Que 5: Compare the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular plateau.

Ans:

East Flowing Rivers	West Flowing Rivers
(i) The major east flowing rivers are Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.(ii) These rivers drain into the Bay of Bengal.(iii) These rivers form deltas at their mouths.(iv) Its tributaries are large.	(i) The main west flowing rivers are Narmada and Tapi.(ii) These rivers fall into the Arabian Sea.(iii) These rivers form estuaries.(iv) The length of their tributaries is short.

Que 6: Why are rivers important for the country’s economy? 

Ans: Rivers are important for the country’s economy in the following ways:-

1. River water is a major natural resource and essential for many human activities.
2. Rivers provide water for irrigation and cultivation.
3. This is the reason why in ancient times the tribals used to live on the banks of the rivers.
4. The importance of rivers in irrigation, navigation and hydropower generation.

4: Climate 

Exercise

Que 1: Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?

(a) Silchar.                      (b) Cherrapunji

(c) Mawsynram.              (d) Guwahati

Ansr: (c) Mawsynram

(ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:

(a) Kaal Baisakhi.                (b) Trade Winds

(c) Loo.                                 (d) None of the above

Ans: (c) Loo

(iii) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:

(a) Early May.                       (b) Early June

(c) Early July.                       (d) Early August

Ans: (b) Early June

(iv) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?

(a) Warm days and warm nights 

(b) Warm days and cold nights

(c) Cool days and cold nights

(d) Cold days and warm nights

Ans: (c) Cool days and cold nights

Que 2: Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What are the controls affecting the climate of India?

Ans: latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system, distance from the sea (continentality), ocean currents and relief features.

(ii) Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?

Ans: The monsoon type of climate in India is due to the following reasons:

1. In the monsoon climate, the direction of the winds changes according to the season.
2. Even in the climate of India, the winds move from sea to land in summer and from land to sea in winter.
3. More than 80 percent of the country’s rainfall comes from the monsoon winds.

(iii) Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?

Ans: Northwestern desert part of India experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature. In summer the temperature reaches up to 50°. Because this demand has sandy land and it gets hot quickly.

(iv) Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast?

Ans: South-western Monsoon winds

(v) Define monsoons. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon?

Ans: Monsoon is derived from the Arabic word “Mausim” which means season. The change in the direction of winds according to the seasons during the year is called monsoon.

Monsoon break:- There is a rainless interval in the monsoon rains, when there is a break in the rains. When the axis of the monsoon trough moves near the Himalayas, the plains remain dry for some time. This is called “break” in monsoon.

(vi) Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond?

Ans: The entire Indian landscape, its fauna and flora, its agricultural cycle, human life and their festivals, all revolve around this monsoon rhythm. From north to south and from east to west, the entire Indian waits for the arrival of the monsoon every year. These monsoon winds accelerate the process of agriculture by providing us with water and bind the whole country in one thread.

Que 3:Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India?

Ans: The amount of rainfall decreases from east to west in Northern India because the monsoon enters India first in the North East. The high Himalayan mountains do not allow them to go further. Due to high humidity, this branch of winds causes a lot of rain in this part. As these winds move towards the west, their humidity decreases.

Que 4: Give reasons as to why.

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent?

Ans: In the winter season, a high pressure area is formed in the north of the Himalayas, cold dry winds blow from north to south. Whereas in summer, an area of high air pressure is formed in the Indian Ocean. In this way the winds start blowing from the area of high pressure to the area of low pressure in the north. This is the reason that the direction of the wind reverses.

(ii) The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.

Answer:

1. More than 80% of the rainfall in India comes from the monsoon winds.
2. These winds blow only for a few months of the year from June to September.
3. In these months the winds blow from sea to land.
4. These winds bring with them a lot of water vapor and moisture which causes rain.
5. There is no rain in the rest of the months because the winds blow from land to sea.

(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.

Answer: North-East trade winds blow in India in winter. They flow from land to sea. That’s why most part of the country have a dry season. Due to these winds, some amount of rainfall occurs on the coast of Tamil Nadu, because these winds flow from sea to land.

(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.

Answer: This happens because the cyclonic pressure arising over the ocean near Andaman is transferred towards the coastal parts of the country by the tropical jet currents.

(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought-prone.

Ans: Some parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats do not block the monsoon winds, so there is no rain in these places.

Que 5: Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.

Answer: Some examples of regional variations in the climatic conditions of India are as follows:

1. In summer, the temperature in some places in the desert of Rajasthan reaches about 50°C, while Pahalgam in Jammu and Kashmir has a temperature of about 20°C.
2. On winter nights, the temperature in Leh-Ladakh can go up to -45°C, while it can be as low as 22°C in Thiruvananthapuram.
3. The rainfall in Meghalaya is more than 400 cm while in Ladakh and western Rajasthan it is less than 10 cm.
4. Most parts of the country receive rainfall from June to September, but in some areas such as the Tamil Nadu coast, most of the rainfall occurs in October and November.

Que 6: Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.

Answer:

1. The winter season in northern India starts from mid-November and lasts till February.
2. December and January are the coldest months in the northern part of India.
3. The temperature decreases from south to north. The average temperature of Chennai on the east coast ranges from 24°C to 25°C, while it ranges from 10°C to 15°C in the northern plains.
4. The days are hot and the nights are cold in this season. Frost is common in the north and snowfall occurs on the upper slopes of the Himalayas.
5. In this season, the north-east trade winds blow in the country. They flow from the land to the sea and hence there is a dry season in most parts of the country.

Que 7: Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.

Answer: The characteristics of monsoon rains in India are:

1. Monsoon starts in India in the month of June.
2. Monsoon winds carrying moisture from the ocean bring rain to almost the whole of India.
3. Monsoon winds 30 km moves at an average speed of 1 hour.
4. Monsoon ends in the month of October.

5: Natural Vegetation and Wildlife 

Exercise

Que 1: Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?

(a) Tundra.                    (b) Himalayan

(c) Tidal.                        (d) Tropical Evergreen

Ans: (d) Tropical Evergreen

(ii) Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than

(a) 100 cm.                     (b) 70 cm

(c) 50 cm.                       (d) less than 50 cm

Ans: (a) 100 cm

(iii) In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?

(a) Punjab.             (b) Delhi

(c) Odisha.             (d) West Bengal

Ans: (d) West Bengal

(iv) Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in the world 

network of bioreserve?

(a) Manas.           (b) Gulf of Mannar

(c) Nilgiri.            (d) Panna 

Ans: (d) Panna 

Que 2: Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What factors are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India?

Answer: Factors that determine the distribution of plants and animals in India:- Climate, rainfall, temperature, relief, drainage system.

(ii) What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.

Answer: A biosphere reserve is a reserve that is an ecosystem of land, coast or both. Those who are recognized under UNESCO’s Human and Biosphere Program-1971. Example- Sundarbans and Nanda Devi.

(iv) Name two animals having habitat in tropical and montane types of vegetation.

Answer: Wildlife of tropical rain forests – elephants, monkeys, langurs.

Wildlife of mountain vegetation- Kashmir deer, spotted deer, wild sheep.

Que 3: Distinguish between

(i) Flora and Fauna

Ans: 

Flora	Fauna
The term flora is used to denote plants of a particular region or period	The species of animals are referred to as fauna.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests

Ans:

Tropical Evergreen	Deciduous forests
(i) They are found in Western Ghats, Lakshadweep, Assam.(ii) They are found in areas receiving more than 200 cm of rainfall.(iii) These forests are always full.(iv) The trees commonly found in these forests are ebony, mahogany, rosewood etc.(v) Elephants, monkeys, langurs, one horned rhinoceros and deer are found in these forests.	(i) These forests are found in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh etc.(ii) They are found in areas receiving 70 to 200 cm of rainfall.(iii) The leaves of these forests fall in summer.(iv) These forests have trees like teak, bamboo, sal, rosewood, sandalwood, khair, neem etc.(v) Lions and tigers are found in these forests.

Que 4: Name different types of Vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes.

Ans:The following major types of vegetation may be identified in our country.

(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests

(ii) Tropical Deciduous Forests

(iii) Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs

(iv) Montane Forests

(v) Mangrove Forests

The vegetation found at higher altitudes are montane forests. These are also called temperate tropical forests. Coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce, cedar, etc. are found in these. Animals like Kashmiri deer, spotted deer, wild sheep, rabbits, yak etc. are often found in these forests.

Que 5: Quite a few species of plants and animals are endangered in India. Why?

Ans: About 1300 plant species are in danger in India and 20 species have become extinct. Many wildlife species are also on the verge of extinction. The reason for their extinction is the excessive hunting for business by some greedy traders. There is pollution and rapid deforestation.

Que 6: Why has India a rich heritage of flora and fauna?

Ans: India is rich in forest wealth and wildlife. 47000 species of plants are found here. There are 15000 types of flowering plants in India. 90000 species of animals are found in India. More than 2000 species of birds are found in these. About 2500 types of fish are found here. So we can say that India is rich in the heritage of flora and fauna.

6: Population 

Exercise

Que 1: Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in

(a) The area of departure

(b) Both the area of departure and arrival

(c) The area of arrival

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b) Both the area of departure and arrival

(ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of

(a) High birth rates

(b) High death rates

(c) High life expectancies

(d) More married couples

Ans: (a) High birth rates

(iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to

(a) The total population of an area

(b) The number of persons added each year

(c) The rate at which the population increases

(d) The number of females per thousand males

Ans: (b) The number of persons added each year

(iv) According to the Census 2001, a “literate” person is one who

(a) Can read and write his/her name

(b) Can read and write any language

(c) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding

(d) Knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)

Ans: (c) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding

Que 2: Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?

Ans: Since 1981, the birth rate started declining gradually in India, due to which the growth rate of population also declined.

(ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.

Ans: The important components of population growth are the following:

Birth rate: The number of live children born per thousand per year is called birth rate.

Death rate:- The number of people who die per thousand per year is called death rate.

Migration:- Movement of people from one area to another is called migration.

(iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.

Ans:

Age Structure:- Studying the population by dividing the country’s population into different age groups is called age structure or age composition.

Birth rate:- The number of live children born per thousand per year is called birth rate.

Death rate:- The number of people who die per thousand per year is called death rate.

(iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?

Ans: Migration is an important component of population change. It not only affects the size of the population but also changes the composition of urban and rural population in terms of age and sex. In India, there has been a steady increase in the population of cities and towns due to rural-urban migration.

Que 3: Distinguish between population growth and population change.

Ans:

Population growth	Population change
Population growth refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of an area over a specified period of time, such as within 10 years.	Population change refers to the change in population distribution, structure or size of an area during a certain period of time.

Que 4: What is the relation between occupational structure and development?

Ans: Occupational structure refers to the population engaged in various economic activities. These economic functions are divided into three sectors. The primary sector is agriculture, animal husbandry, fisheries etc. Industrial production is in the secondary sector. Service related works come in tertiary sector. This structure has contributed significantly to the development.

Que 5: What are the advantages of having a healthy population?

Ans: Healthy population is beneficial in the following ways:-

1. Healthy population contributes to development.
2. Builds human resources.
3. Reduces health expenditure.
4. Production increases.

Que 6: What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?

Ans: Following are the main features of the National Population Policy:-

1. Decrease in birth rate and population growth
2. Raising the minimum age of marriage
3. Promote family planning
4. Special emphasis on women’s education.

Civics 

1: What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

Exercise

Que 1: Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you 

classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

(a) Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote

(b) Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years

(c) Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections

(d) Country D: There is no independent election commission

Ans:(a) Undemocratic

(b) Not sure

(c ) Democratic

(d) Undemocratic

Que 2: Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you 

classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

(a) Country P: The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of Army

(b) Country Q: The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary

(c) Country R: The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country without taking 

permission from its neighbouring country.

(d) Country S: All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the 

central bank which the ministers cannot change.

Ans: (a)Undemocratic

(b) Democratic

(c ) Undemocratic

(d) Undemocratic

Que 3: Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy? Why?

(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy

(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others

(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people

(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others

Ans:(d) is not a good argument. It is not necessary that one democratic state is more prosperous than the other state. The prosperity and happiness of the people of the country and abroad depends on the economic development of the country and not on the form of government.

Que 4: Each of these statements contains a democratic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.

(a) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament in order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation.

Ans: 

Democratic:- some laws have to be passed by the parliament

Undemocratic:- to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation.

(b) The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large scale rigging was reported.

Ans: 

Democratic:-The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency

Undemocratic:-large scale rigging was reported.

(c) Women’s representation in the parliament has never reached 10 per cent. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.

Ans:

Democratic:-This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.

Undemocratic:- Women’s representation in the parliament has never reached 10 per cent.

 Que 5: Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country?

(a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.

(b) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.

(c) Government fears its defeat in the next elections.

(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

Ans: (d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

Que 6: There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made no provision for drinking water. These villagers met and considered many methods of forcing the government to respond to their need. Which of these is not a democratic method?

(a) Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of right to life.

(b) Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.

(c) Organising public meetings against government’s policies.

(d) Paying money to government officials to get water.

Ans 6: (d) Paying money to government officials to get water.

Que 7: Write a response to the following arguments against democracy:

(a) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore army should rule the country.

(b) Rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.

(c) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well. The country should be ruled by religious leaders.

Ans : 

(a) There is no doubt that Army is the most disciplined and corruption free organization in the country but it will not be fair to rule the country by Army as it is not elected by the people. It is likely to be autocratic.

(b) The argument that governance should be with a few intelligent people is not correct. Due to this, some power will come in the hands of a few people due to which the rest will be victims of neglect.

(c) It is not appropriate to say that the country should be ruled by religious leaders. In a democracy, the decisions are taken by the elected representatives of the people. They protect the interests of the public. But in the rule of religious leaders, the interests of a particular religion will be taken care of.

Que 8: Are the following statements in keeping with democracy as a value? Why?

(a) Father to daughter: I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage.In our family children marry where the parents tell them to.

(b) Teacher to student: Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions in the classroom.

(c) Employee to the officer: Our working hours must be reduced according to the law.

Ans: 

(a) This statement is not democratic as a daughter cannot be forced to marry against her will. The daughter should have the right to marry the person of her choice.

(b) This statement is not democratic as the student is asking questions to clear the doubts related to the subject. In such a situation, the teacher should definitely solve the questions of the students.

(c) This statement is democratic as the employees can do so to protect their rights. Employees can demand reduction of working hours as per law.

Que 9: Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it a democracy. Give reasons to support your decision.

(a) All the citizens of the country have right to vote. Elections are held regularly.

(b) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions for giving loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education and health.

(c) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in one language, the language spoken by 52 percent people of that country.

(d) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nationwide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.

(e) The government owns the radio and television in the country. All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about government’s policies and protests.

Ans: 

(a) It is a democratic country because giving voting rights to all citizens and regular elections are the main features of democracy.

(b) This country can be undemocratic because the interests of the public are not being protected here.

(c) It is undemocratic because citizens do not have the right to receive education in their own language.

(d) It is an undemocratic country because in a democracy everyone has the right to protest peacefully.

(e) It is an undemocratic country because there should be freedom of media in a democracy.

2: Constitutional Design 

Exercise

Que 1: Here are some false statements. Identify the mistake in each case and rewrite these correctly based on what you have read in this chapter.

(a) Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic or not after independence.

Ans: Mistake:- Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic or not after independence.

Correct Statement:- Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic after independence.

(b) Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held the same views on all provisions of the Constitution.

Ans: Mistake:- Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held the same views on all provisions of the Constitution.

Correct Statement:- Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held different views on all provisions of the Constitution.

(c) A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.

Ans: Mistake:- A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.

Correct Statement:- A country that has a constitution is not necessary that it must be a democracy.

(d) Constitution cannot be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.

Ans: Mistake:- Constitution cannot be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.

Correct Statement:– Constitution can be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.

Que 2: Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?

(a) Between South Africa and its neighbours

(b) Between men and women

(c) Between the white majority and the black minority

(d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority

Ans: (d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority

Que 3: Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?

(a) Powers of the head of the state

(b) Name of the head of the state

(c) Powers of the legislature

(d) Name of the country

Ans: (b) Name of the head of the state

Que 4: Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:

Column I	Column II
(a) Motilal Nehru	1. President of the Constituent Assembly
(b) B R Ambedkar	2. Member of the Constituent Assembly
(c) Rajendra Prasad	3. Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(d) Sarojini Naidu	4. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

Ans: 

Column I	Column II
(a) Motilal Nehru	4. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928
(b) B R Ambedkar	3. Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(c) Rajendra Prasad	1. President of the Constituent Assembly
(d) Sarojini Naidu	2. Member of the Constituent Assembly

Que 5: Read again the extracts from Nehru’s speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ and answer the following:

(a) Why did Nehru use the expression “not wholly or in full measure” in the first sentence?

Ans: Nehru used this expression because nation building is a huge task which cannot be completed in one’s lifetime.

(b) What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?

Ans: He wanted them to take a pledge to build a nation in which no person had tears in their eyes..

(c) “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye”. Who was he referring to?

Ans: He was referring to Mahatma Gandhi.

Que 6: Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.

Column I	Column II
(a) Sovereign	1. Government will not favour any religion
(b) Republic	2. People have the supreme right to make decisions.
(c) Fraternity	3. Head of the state is an elected person.
(d) Secular	4. People should live like brothers and sisters.

Ans:

Column I	Column II
(a) Sovereign	2. People have the supreme right to make decisions.
(b) Republic	3. Head of the state is an elected person.
(c) Fraternity	4. People should live like brothers and sisters.
(d) Secular	1. Government will not favour any religion

Que 7: A friend from Nepal has written you a letter describing the political exercises situation there. Many political parties are opposing the rule of the king. Some of them say that the existing constitution given by the monarch can be amended to allow more powers to elected representatives. Others are demanding a new Constituent Assembly to write a republican constitution. Reply to your friend giving your opinions on the subject.

Ans:

Dear friend,

We received your letter. I am safe here. I hope you are also doing well. In the letter you wrote about the political situation in Nepal. My point in this regard is that this is a good step in the politics of Nepal. Nepal should make a republican constitution. Hope soon the democratic system will be implemented there. Hello!

your friend,

_________

Que 8: Here are different opinions about what made India a democracy. How much importance would you give to each of these factors?

(a) Democracy in India is a gift of the British rulers. We received training to work with representative legislative institutions under the British rule.

(b) Freedom Struggle challenged the colonial exploitation and denial of different freedoms to Indians. Free India could not be anything but democratic.

(c) We were lucky to have leaders who had democratic convictions. The denial of democracy in several other newly independent countries shows the important role of these leaders.

Ans:

(a) This will be considered an important reason for the democratic system in India. It is true that we got training to work in a democratic system through the provincial assemblies formed during the British rule.

(b) This statement can be considered as an important reason for the democratic system in India. Because our leader opposed exploitation and it is necessary to oppose exploitation in a democratic system.

(c) Certainly our nationalist leaders played an important role in the establishment of democracy. Our leaders had faith in democracy, so after independence, democratic system was implemented in the country.

Que 9: Read the following extract from a conduct book for ‘married women’, published in 1912. ‘God has made the female species delicate and fragile both physically and emotionally, pitiably incapable of self-defence. They are destined thus by God to remain in male protection – of father, husband and son – all their lives. Women should, therefore, not despair, but feel obliged that they can dedicate themselves to the service of men’. Do you think the values expressed in this para reflected the values underlying our constitution? Or does this go against the constitutional values?

Ans: This paragraph does not reflect the underlying value in our constitution. Women and men have equal rights in the constitution. Women are free to do every work.

Que 10: Read the following statements about a constitution. Give reasons why each of these is true or not true.

(a) The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.

(b) Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.

(c) Rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government are laid down in the constitution.

(d) A constitution is about institutions, not about values.

Ans:

(a) This statement is not true. The status of the rules of the constitution is much higher than other laws. Parliament can change other laws by simple majority. While there is a special process to change the rules of the constitution. A two-thirds majority is required to change these rules.

(b) This statement is true. The rules related to the formation of various organs of governance are described in the constitution.

(c) This statement is true. The third part of the constitution describes the fundamental rights of the citizens. Governments can work only according to the constitution.

(d) This statement is not true. The values are mentioned in the preamble of the constitution itself. In this, emphasis has been laid on the values of liberty, equality, fraternity, justice, glory of the individual, unity and integrity of the nation.

3: Electoral Politics 

Exercise

Que 1: Which of the following sentiments about the reason for conducting elections are false?

a. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.

b. People select the representative of their choice in an election.

c. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary

d. People can indicate which policies they prefer. 

Ans: (c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary

Que 2: Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

a. India has the largest numbers of voters in the world.

b. India’s election commission is very powerful.

c. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.

d. In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.

Ans: (a) India has the largest numbers of voters in the world.

Que 3:  Match the following :

(a) It is necessary to keep the voters list up to date because(b) Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that(c ) Everyone has one and only one vote so that(d) Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because

i there is a fair representation of all sections of our societyii everyone has equal opportunity to elect their representativeiii all candidates must have a fair chance of competing in electionsiv some people may have moved away from the area where they voted last

Ans:

(a) It is necessary to keep the voters list up to date because(b) Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that(c ) Everyone has one and only one vote so that (d) Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because

iv) some people may have moved away from the area where they voted lasti) there is a fair representation of all sections of our societyii) everyone has equal opportunity to elect their representativeiii) all candidates must have a fair chance of competing in elections

Que 4: List all the different election related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below:

Releasing election manifestos, Counting of votes, Making of voters’ list, Election campaign, Declaration of election results, Casting of votes, Ordering of re-poll, Announcing election schedule, Filing nomination. 

Ans: Different election related activities:

a) Making of voters’ list

b) Announcing election schedule

c) Filing nomination

d) Election campaign

e) Releasing election manifestos

f) Casting of votes

g) Ordering of re-poll 

h) Counting of votes

i) Declaration of election results

Que 5: Surekha is an officer-in-charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what she should focus on for each of the following stages of election:

a. Election campaign

b. Polling day

c. Counting day. 

Ans:

(a) During the election campaign it is the responsibility of the Returning Officer to

1. Election code of conduct should be implemented.
2. Candidates and political parties should not ask for votes on the basis of caste and religion.
3. Prohibition of inducement, bribing, threatening etc. of the voter.
4. Government resources should not be used in election campaigns.

(b) On the day of the poll, the election officer will have to take care that there should not be any disturbance in the election. Voting should be fair and no one should be able to cast bogus votes. The ballot boxes or voting machines reach the counting center safely.

(c) On the day of counting, the election officer should see that the work of counting is done in a fair manner. For this, all the machines of one constituency should be opened simultaneously. Only the candidate who gets the most votes should be declared victorious.

Que 6: The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidates who won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of these communities in the population of the US. Based on this would you suggest a system of reservations in the US Congress? If yes, why and for which communities? If no, why not?

Proportion of the community (in percent) in the
	House ofrepresentatives	Population of US
Black	8	13
Hispanic	5	13
White	86	7

Ans:Based on the above table, I would suggest reservation for the Hispanic community in the elections to the US Parliament. Because the Hispanic community is underrepresented.

Que 7: Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two facts to support your position for each of these.

a. Election Commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country.

b. There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.

c. It is very easy for the party in power to win an election.

d. Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair. 

Ans:

(a) disagree with this opinion. The Election Commission of India has sufficient authority to conduct free and fair elections. After the implementation of the election code of conduct, all administrative rights come to the Election Commission. The Election Commission has the right to punish political parties or candidates who violate it.

(b) These statements are true. Voting percentage is continuously increasing in India. 32% people in our country are involved in election activities in one way or the other.

(c) This statement is false. The anger of the public is more towards the ruling party. Therefore, it is difficult for the ruling party to win the election. Most of the people in India want to bring change in the governments.

(d) This statement is true. The use of money power in elections should be banned. Candidates with criminal image need to be removed from politics.

Que 8: Chinappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?

Ans: This decision is not against the basic principles of democratic elections as both Chinappa and Satbir have been punished by the court. Both of them are of criminal nature. Both of them did not prove to be good and ideal citizens for the country. Therefore they should not be considered eligible for election.

Que 9: Here are some reports of electoral malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in each case?

(a) During an election in Nigeria, the officer-in-charge of counting votes deliberately increased the votes of one candidate and declared him elected. The court later found out that more than 5 lakh votes cast for one candidate were counted in favour of another.

(b) Just before the elections in Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for former Prime Minister, Mahendra Chaudhry will lead to bloodshed. This was a threat to voters of Indian origin.

(c) In the US, each state has its own method of voting, its own procedure of counting and it own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of Florida took many controversial decisions that favoured Mr. Bush in the Presidential elections in 2000. But no one could change those decisions. 

Ans:

(a) Nigeria should adopt transparent methods of counting votes. As in India, the counting process should be done in front of the agents of the candidates.

(b) On such an incident the Electoral Commission of Fiji should penalize the candidates. If they do not agree, they should be expelled from the election.

(c) America wants the election process of the whole country to be the same. This process should be under the jurisdiction of the Election Commission like India.

Que 10: Here are some reports of malpractices in Indian elections. Identify what the problem in each case is. What should be done to correct the situation?

(a) Following the announcement of elections the minister promised to provide financial aid to reopen the closed sugar mill.

(b) Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given the due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio.

(c) An inquiry by the Election Commission showed that electoral rolls of a state contain names of 20 lakh fake voters.

(d) The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties. 

Ans:

(a) Election code of conduct has been violated in this case. The Election Commission should cancel this decision of the minister and ban the minister from contesting elections.

(b) In this event there is no objectivity in the election campaign. The Election Commission should give equal time to all political parties to present their views on radio and television.

(c) There is a possibility of disturbances in the election due to bogus voters. The Election Commission should periodically check the voter list and remove bogus voters from the voter list.

(d) Such incidents do not lead to free and fair elections. The Election Commission should arrest such criminals and send them to jail.

Que 11: Ramesh was not in class when this chapter was being taught. He came the next day and reported what he had heard from his father. Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements?

(a) Women always vote the way men tell them. So what is the point of giving them the right to vote?

(b) Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus not by competition.

(c) Only graduates should be allowed to stand as candidates for elections. 

Ans:

(a) This statement is not correct because in a democracy everyone has the right to vote. There is secrecy in the Indian voting process. So women can vote without any pressure.

(b) This statement is not correct because it is difficult to get everyone’s consent in elections. That’s why the election is decided on the basis of majority.

(c) This statement is not correct because everyone has equal rights in a democracy. Giving only graduates the right to contest elections will discriminate against those who are not graduates.

4: Working of Institutions 

Exercise

Que 1:If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decision can 

you take on your own?

(a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.

(b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha.

(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

(d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.

Ans: (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

Que 2: Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

(a) District Collector

(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs

(c) Home Minister

(d) Director General of Police

Ans: (c) Home Minister

Que 3:Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?

(a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court

(b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the Constitution

(c) Judiciary is independent of the Executive

(d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated

Ans: (a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court

Que 4: Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?

(a) The Supreme Court

(b) The President”

(c) The Prime Minister

(d) The Parliament

Ans: (d) The Parliament

Que 5: Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released: exercises

Column I	Column II
(a) A new policy is being made to increase the jute exports from the country.	1. Ministry of Defence
(b) Telephone services will be made more accessible to rural areas.	2. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
(c) The price of rice and wheat sold under the Public Distribution System will go down	3. Ministry of Health
(d) A pulse polio campaign will be launched.	4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(e) The allowances of the soldiers posted on high altitudes will be increased.	5. Ministry of Communications and Information Technology

Ans: 

(a) ——- 4

(b) ——- 5

(c) ——- 2

(d) ——- 3

(e) ——- 1

Que 6: Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one that exercises the powers on each of the following matters.

(a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigation etc. and different welfare activities for the citizens

(b) Considers the recommendation of a Committee on a law to regulate the stock exchange

(c) Decides on a legal dispute between two state governments

(d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake.

Ans:

1. Executive.
2. Legislature.
3. Judiciary.
4. Executive.

Que 7: Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the 

most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice.

(a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.

(b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers even before the expiry of their term.

(c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it.

(d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election.

Ans: In a parliamentary democracy, only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister. This is true because in the parliamentary system all the policies and plans are passed on the basis of majority. If the leader of the majority party is not made the Prime Minister, then he will not be able to implement his policies and plans in the absence of majority.

Que 8: Three friends went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister 

for a day and making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this kind of a personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shankar said all this is a fantasy. No minister can do anything in one day. What would be your reaction to such a film?

Ans: What has happened in such films seems morally right. But so many reforms are not possible in a single day. We must keep improving continuously.

Que 9: A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two 

students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each 

one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock 

Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you, which one would you choose and 

why?

Ans: I would like to be the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha because the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha becomes the Prime Minister. The one who has more powers. It is the Prime Minister who expands the cabinet. All executive decisions are taken by the Prime Minister. This is a powerful post.

Que 10: After reading the example of the reservation order, three students had different 

reactions about the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of judiciary?

(a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent.

(b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.

(c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order.

Ans: (b) In my opinion, Anjaiah is right in saying that the judiciary is independent as it can pass judgment against the orders of the government. The Supreme Court directed the government to amend it.

5: Democracies Rights 

Exercise

Que 1: Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?

(a) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the farms

(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools

(c) Men and women government employees get the same salary

(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children

Ans: (d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children

Que 2: Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?

(a) Freedom to criticise the government

(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution

(c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government

(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Ans: (b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution

Que 3: Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Right to work

(b) Right to adequate livelihood

(c) Right to protect one’s culture

(d) Right to privacy

Ans: (d) Right to privacy

Que 4: Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:

(a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion

(b) Right to life

(c) Abolition of untouchability

(d) Ban on bonded labour

Ans:

(a) Right to freedom of religion

(b) Right to freedom

(c) Right to equality

(d) Right to freedom

Que 5: Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.

(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.

(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.

Ans: Statement (a) is most correct. Citizen’s rights are one of the main features of democracy. Every democratic country has included the rights of its citizens in the constitution.

Que 6: Are these restrictions on the right to freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

(a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security.

(b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.

(c) The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.

Ans:

(a) This restriction is reasonable. Every citizen in India has the freedom to move around in any part of the country. But keeping in mind the security of the country, it is necessary for a person to take permission to go to certain parts. The security of the country is paramount. This is not infringing on any person’s freedom.

(b) This restriction is justified because in some areas the capitalist class buys the property of the poor for their livelihood. In some tribal areas, such restrictions have been imposed so that the people there maintain their culture.

(c) This restriction is not justified because doing so is a clear violation of freedom of expression.

Que 7: Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the district collector.

Ans: In this case Manoj’s “right to equality” and “right to freedom” are being violated.

A letter from Manoj to the District Magistrate

To,

District Magistrate Sir/Madam,

I had applied for the post of manager in a government office. The grocer there refused to accept my application and said, ‘Being the son of a sweeper, you want to become a manager. Has anyone from your caste ever come to this position? Go to the municipal office and apply for a sweeper.’ This is clearly a violation of my right to liberty and equality. I request you to intervene in this matter.

requester,

Manoj

Que 8: When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the exercises Registrar told her, “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o A. K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?” In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And why?

Ans: In our opinion, Madhurima’s side is right in this dispute because there is freedom of naming in the constitution. It is the choice of the woman whether she wants to keep the surname of her parents or that of her husband.

Que 9: Thousands of tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter.

Ans: 

Letter from Tribals to NHRC

To

The Chairman 

NHRC.

We seek your attention on the displacement of tribal people from Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. The government’s proposal is a violation of human rights. This will cause untold suffering to the tribals, their families, children and their future. Kindly take necessary action for this unfair act.

sincerely,

_______

Response from the Government

1.  The government has decided to set up wildlife parks and wildlife sanctuaries to protect wildlife that is nearing extinction and to provide natural habitats to endangered species and other animals.
2. To do this, human intervention has to be stopped and hence tribals and forest dwellers have to be displaced from these areas.
3. However, the resettlement will be done at some other suitable place keeping in view the welfare of the tribals and ensuring the future of the tribals.

NHRC’s Report

1. NHRC said that tribals and forest dwellers have been living in forests for centuries and also earn their livelihood from forests.
2. However, realizing the importance of forests in his life, he has taken care that it should not be harmed in any way.
3. They coexist with all the flora and fauna in the forests and have many beliefs and traditions that protect the forests and animals.
4. Lastly, they are not a threat to the flora and fauna and they can help protect, preserve and conserve the forest flora and fauna, so they should be allowed to live in forests as part of the forest.

Economics 

1: The Story of Village Palampur 

Exercise

Que 1. Every village in India is surveyed once in ten years during the Census and

some of details are presented in the following format. Fill up the following based

on information on Palampur.

a. Location:

b. Total area of the village:

c. Land use (in hectares):

Ans: 

(a) Location Area: Palampur is well connected to the neighboring villages and towns. There is a village Raiganj at a distance of three kilometers from Palampur. A road connects the village to Raiganj and beyond to Shahpur, the nearest small town.

(b) Total area of the village : 276 hectares

(c) Land use (in hectares)

• Irrigated Land: 200 Hectares
• Unirrigated Land: 50 Hectares
• Land that is not available for agriculture: 26 Hectares 
• (areas of dwelling places, roads, ponds, pastures, etc.)

Que 2. Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in

industry. Do you agree?

Ans: Yes, agree with the statement that the tools required for modern methods of farming are manufactured in industries. Modern farming requires HYV seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilizers, pesticides. Machines like tractor and thresher are also required to be used. All these will be manufactured in industries only.

Que 3. How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur?

Ans: The method of irrigation changed with the spread of electricity in Palampur. Earlier, farmers used to irrigate small fields by drawing water from wells with rahats. People saw that electric tube wells could irrigate more area more effectively. Initially some tube wells were installed by the government. But, soon the farmers started installing their own private tube wells. As a result, by the mid-1970s the entire cultivated area of 200 hectares was under irrigation.

Que 4. Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?

Ans: It is not certain that the rains will come in India. Therefore, depending on the rains, sowing of crops is reduced. Increase in irrigated area leads to increase in production.

Que 5. Construct a table on the distribution of land among the 450 families of Palampur.

Ans:

landless familyHouseholds with less than 2 hectares of landHouseholds with more than 2 hectares of land	150 (Dalit)240 families60 families
Total	450 families

Que 6. Why are the wages for farm labourers in Palampur less than minimum wages?

Ans: There is competition among agricultural laborers for work in Palampur village. That’s why people get ready to work even for low wages.

Que 7. In your region, talk to two labourers. Choose either farm labourers or labourers working at construction sites. What wages do they get? Are they paid in cash or kind? Do they get work regularly? Are they in debt?

Ans: I talked to two laborers of my area. One of them works in the fields and the other works as a laborer in manufacturing. Farm workers get Rs 150 to 200, while manufacturing workers get Rs 250 to 300. They get cash money. They do not get regular work. They are in debt.

Que 8. What are the different ways of increasing production on the same piece of

land? Use examples to explain.

Ans: Following are the ways to increase the production on the same land :-

1. Production can be increased by multiple cropping system.
2. Effective irrigation system.
3. by HYV Seeds
4. By using fertilizers, chemical fertilizers, pesticides.

Que 9. Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.

Answer: Farmers owning one hectare of land are able to produce very little. He cannot manage to eat both his meals. That’s why after working in his fields, he has to work in the fields of a big farmer for Rs.100.

Que 10. How do the medium and large farmers obtain capital for farming? How is it

different from the small farmers?

Ans: Large and medium farmers sell most of the farm produce. A part of the earnings is kept aside for arranging capital for the next season. In this way, they arrange capital for their farming from their own savings. Some farmers also use the savings to buy animals, trucks, etc. or to open a shop. As we shall see, all these are called capital for non-agricultural purposes. On the other hand, small farmers borrow money from big farmers or traders at high rate of interest to manage capital. One has to face difficulties in repaying this loan.

Que 11. On what terms did Savita get a loan from Tajpal Singh? Would Savita’s condition

be different if she could get a loan from the bank at a low rate of interest?

Ans: Savita got a loan from Tejpal at 24 per cent interest for 4 months. Had Savita taken a loan from the bank, she would have got the loan at a very low rate of interest.

Que 12. Talk to some old residents in your region and write a short report on the changes

in irrigation and changes in production methods during the last 30 years.

(Optional)

Ans: After talking to the old residents of our area, it has come to know that 30 years ago irrigation was done through earth. The fields were plowed with the help of oxen. He told that now irrigation is being done through tube wells. All the crops are being produced by machines.

Que 13. What are the non-farm production activities taking place in your region? Make a short list.

Ans: Small scale industries, dairy, shopkeeping, transport, tailoring, carpentry etc. non-agricultural production works are being done in our area.

Que 14. What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in villages?

Ans: People should be trained to start more and more non-agriculture work in the villages. Governments should make available easy loans. Self-help organizations should be established. Small scale industries should be encouraged.

2: People as Resources 

Exercise

Que 1. What do you understand by ‘people as a resource’?

Ans: People as a resource refers to the human capital of the country, which efficiently and effectively creates physical capital. People in the form of resources contribute to the creation of Gross National Product (GDP). These are also called human resources.

Que 2. How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital?

Ans: Human resource is superior to all other capital like land and physical capital. Because human resources can use land and physical capital. They cannot be useful by themselves. Creates many resources through education, health, technology and training to human beings.

Que 3. What is the role of education in human capital formation?

Ans:

1. Education transforms a human being from a liability to an asset.

2. Through education, man acquires the ability to create material resources.

3. Trained man can increase the production capacity of the country.

4. Education makes a man prudent and rational.

5. Through education humans can do technology research.

Que 4. What is the role of health in human capital formation?

Ans: The role of health in human capital formation is as follows.

1. Healthy human beings have more production capacity.

2. An unhealthy person becomes a liability for the country’s economy.

3. Healthy humans can make land and other physical capital useful.

4. Only healthy persons are interested in teaching training.

Que 5. What part does health play in the individual’s working life?

Answer: A physically fit and healthy person does not need to visit the doctor frequently.

He is able to concentrate on his education. An unhealthy person becomes a liability for the family and the country. But a healthy person becomes an asset for the family and the country. 

Que 6. What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary

sector and tertiary sector?

Ans: On the basis of economic activities, the economy is divided into three sectors – primary, secondary and tertiary sectors. The following economic activities are conducted in these sectors.

(i) Primary Sector: Production activity comes in the primary sector. Like – agriculture, mining, fishing etc.

(ii) Secondary Sector: Manufacturing activities come in the secondary sector. For example, textile industry, motor manufacturing etc.

(iii) Tertiary Sector: Service comes in tertiary sector. Like- education, health, communication, banking, insurance etc.

Que 7. What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?

Ans: 

economic activities	non-economic activities
Goods and services are produced through these activities.This increases the national income.Like- mining, agriculture, manufacturing, transport, education, health etc.	Goods and services are not produced in non-economic activities.They do not increase the national income.For example, cooking, cleaning the house, etc.

Que 8. Why are women employed in low paid work?

Answer: Most of the women do household chores which they are not paid for. Most of the women have very little education and low skill levels. Women are paid less than men. Most women work where there is no job security and lack of legal protection.

Que 9. How will you explain the term unemployment?

Answer: If people willing to work at the rate of prevailing wages do not get employment then it is called unemployment.

Que 10. What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment?

Answer: In disguised unemployment people are employed but in reality they are not increasing production or services. For example, four people are required in an agricultural work but 6 people of the family are working. Due to this there is no increase in the productivity of agriculture. That is, even if two people do not work, there will be no change in the production of agriculture. This is called disguised unemployment.

  Seasonal unemployment occurs when people are not able to get employment in some months of the year. People dependent on agriculture often struggle with this type of problem. They get employment only when sowing, harvesting, weeding etc. is done. They do not get work during the rest of the year. This is called seasonal unemployment.

Que 11. Why is educated unemployed, a peculiar problem of India?

Answer: In India, many youths holding matriculation, graduation, post graduation degree are unable to get employment. They are not getting work according to their qualification. This is becoming a huge problem. The manpower which could have been an asset to the economy has become a liability due to unemployment. This is increasing the economic burden on the economy

Que 12. In which field do you think India can build the maximum employment opportunity?

Answer: India can create maximum employment in the service sector, it has immense potential.

Que 13. Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?

Answer: Many changes are required in the education system to overcome the problem of educated unemployed. Is in this type-

Emphasis should be laid on skill development in education.

Vocational interest should be inculcated in the students.

It is necessary to provide technical education to the students.

Students should be made capable of creating employment.

Que 14. Can you imagine some village which initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many?

Answer: Yes, I can think of a village where a lot of employment has been created since then. Earlier there was very little cultivable land in that village. There were no means of irrigation. The entire agriculture depended on the rains. There were no other agricultural activities like fish farming, poultry farming, dairy etc. Most of the people did subsistence farming. But along with education, new means of employment started becoming available in that village. Barren land was also made cultivable by machines. Tube wells were used for irrigation. Apart from agriculture, people also started taking interest in the business of dairy, poultry, fisheries etc. Small handloom industries were also established. Hospitals and schools were opened in the village. Many banks opened their branches. Loans started becoming available to the people. Due to this people started doing business and new employment opportunities started being created.

Que 15. Which capital would you consider the best — land, labour, physical capital and human capital? Why?

Answer: Human capital is superior to all other capitals like land and physical capital. Because human resource can use land and physical capital. Land and physical capital cannot be useful by themselves. Creates many resources through education, health, technology and training to human beings.

3: Poverty as a Challenge 

Exercise

Que 1. Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India?

Answer: The poverty line in India is determined on the basis of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical requirements for survival. In India, 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas. Based on these assumptions, the poverty line for a person in the year 2011-12 has been fixed at Rs.816 per month in rural areas and Rs.1000 per month in urban areas.

Que 2. Do you think that present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate?

Answer: The present method of poverty estimation is not correct. In this method there is only minimum standard of living. It should also include the minimum requirements of education, health, social life.

Que 3. Describe poverty trends in India since 1973?

Answer: In the year 1973, there was about 55 percent poverty in India. In the year 1993 it came down to about 45 percent. In the year 2004, it reached 37.2 percent. In the year 2011, the poverty rate fell further to 22 percent. If this trend continues, the number of people below the poverty line will come down to less than 20 percent in the next few years.

Que 4. Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India?

Answer:

1. The proportion of poor people is not the same in every state of India.
2. In the year 2011-12, the poverty ratio of the entire country was 22 percent.
3. Poverty is higher than the national average in Bihar, Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
4. Bihar and Orissa continue to be the poorest states with poverty averages of 33.7 and 32.6% respectively.
5. In comparison, there has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal.
6. States like Punjab and Haryana have been able to reduce poverty through high agricultural growth rates.
7. Human resource development has been given attention in Kerala.

Que 5. Identify the social and economic groups which are most vulnerable to poverty

in India.

Answer: The following groups are helpless in the face of poverty in India:

1. scheduled caste families
2. scheduled tribe families
3. rural agricultural labor household
4. urban casual labor household

Que 6. Give an account of interstate disparities of poverty in India.

Answer: The following are the reasons for the inter-state variation in poverty in India –

1. Unequal distribution of land and other resources.
2. Spread of Green Revolution Living in limited areas.
3. Establishment of manufacturing industries in only a few states.
4. High density of population in some states.
5. Unequal distribution of education and health services.

Que 7. Describe global poverty trends.

Answer:

1. The average poverty ratio in the world was 36 per cent in 1990.
2. This average dropped to 10 percent in 2015.
3. There has been a significant reduction in poverty due to rapid economic growth and human resource development.
4. The number of poor in China decreased from 88.3 percent in 1981 to 14.7 percent in 2008.
5. In the countries of South Asia (India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan), the decline in the number of poor was equally rapid.

Que 8. Describe current government strategy of poverty alleviation?

Answer: The following are the current government policies for poverty alleviation:

(i) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005

(ii) National Food for Work Scheme.

(iii) Rural Employment Generation Programme.

(iv) Golden Jubilee Village Self Employment Scheme

(v) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana

(vi) Antyodaya Anna Yojana

Que 9. Answer the following questions briefly

(i) What do you understand by human poverty?

(ii) Who are the poorest of the poor?

(iii) What are the main features of the National Rural Employment

Guarantee Act 2005?

Answer :

(a) A person is considered poor if his income or consumption level is below a ‘minimum level’ which meets a set of basic needs such as food, clothing, education, medical and housing etc. That is, that person is poor who is not able to fulfill the basic needs of living.

(b) The poorest of the poor are women, girls and older people as they are deprived of the resources available in the family.

(c) The main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme Act 2005 are as follows:-

Guaranteeing at least 100 days of employment in a year for the livelihood of every household in rural areas.

Its purpose is to help in sustainable development so that drought, flood etc. can be avoided.

One-third of the jobs in this scheme are reserved for women.

4: Food Security in India 

Exercise

Que 1. How is food security ensured in India?

Ans: Food security in India is ensured by buffer stock and public distribution system.

Que 2. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?

Ans: Landless farmers, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, destitute and beggars are more prone to food insecurity.

Que 3. Which states are more food insecure in India?

Ans: Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, West Bengal, Chattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh.

Que 4. Do you believe that green revolution has made India self-sufficient in food

grains? How?

Ans: Yes, I believe that the Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains. With the Green Revolution, food grain production in the country increased in a revolutionary manner. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh produced record breaking production of wheat. While West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh made a significant increase in the production of rice. In this way, the Green Revolution contributed a lot in becoming self-sufficient in food.

Que 5. A section of people in India are still without food. Explain?

Ans: Landless farmers, traditional artisans, traditional service providers, menial workers and the destitute and beggars are still without food in India.

Que 6. What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?

Ans: 

1. Due to a natural calamity like drought, total production of foodgrains decreases.
2. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas. 
3. Due to shortage of food, the prices go up. 
4. At the high prices, some people cannot afford to buy food. 
5. If such calamity happens in a very wide spread area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation.
6. A massive starvation might take a turn of famine.

Que 7. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger?

Ans: 

Seasonal Hunger:

1. Seasonal Hunger occurs when there is not enough food in a particular season.
2. Examples of seasonal starvation are found in agricultural activities in rural areas.
3. This type of hunger exists when a person is unable to get work for the entire year.

Chronic starvation :

1. Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and quality. 
2. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income.
3. They are not even able to buy food to survive.

Que 8. What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss

any two schemes launched by the government?

Ans: 

1. Antyodaya Anna Yojana :- It was started in 2002. This scheme was started for the poorest of the poor. Under this, 35 kg Grain is available at the rate of two rupees wheat and three rupees rice per kg. The operation of this scheme was linked to the existing network of the Public Distribution System.
2. Annapurna Yojana:- It was started in 2000. This scheme was launched for Indigent senior citizens. Under this, 10 kg Food is available absolutely free of cost. The operation of this scheme was also linked to the existing network of the Public Distribution System.

Que 9. Why is buffer stock created by the government?

Ans: The government creates buffer stock for the following reasons.

1. To distribute in areas with shortage of grains.
2. To distribute food grains to the poor sections of the society at a low price.
3. To meet the shortage of food grains in times of calamity.

Que 10. Write notes on:

(a) Minimum support price

(b) Buffer stock

(c) Issue price

(d) Fair price shops

Ans: 

(a) Minimum Support Price: Farmers are given pre-announced prices for their crops. This is called the minimum support price.

(b) Buffer stock: The government purchases surplus food grains from farmers through the Food Corporation of India and keeps them in stores. This is called buffer stock.

(c) Issue price: The government distributes food grains to the poor sections of the society at a price less than the market price. This price is called the issue price.

(d) Fair price shops: Under the public distribution system, there are about 5.5 lakh ration shops in all areas, villages, towns and cities of the country. These shops are called fair price shops.

Que 11. What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops?

Ans: There are the following problems in the operation of ration shops:-

1. PDS dealers are found diverting the grains to open market to get better margin.
2. Selling poor quality grains at ration shops.
3. Irregular opening of the shops.

Que 12. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items.

Ans: The role of cooperatives in providing food and related items is as follows:-

1. Co-operative societies open low cost shops for sale of food grains to poor people.
2. 90% of ration shops in Tamil Nadu are run by cooperatives.
3. Cooperatives have set up grain banks for food security.
4. In Delhi, Mother Dairy has provided milk and vegetables at government rates.